During physical examination of a 51-year-old African-American female you appreciate a decrease in her peripheral vision. The rest of her eye examination is within normal limits and she is symptom free. This presentation is consistent with:
Response “D” is the correct answer. Painless loss of peripheral vision is consistent Feedback
: with open angle glaucoma and this patient is from a high risk group (African-American population). “A” is incorrect because macular degeneration is a disease of central vision change/loss. “B” is incorrect— increased intraocular pressure is consistent with glaucoma but not intracranial pressure. “C” is incorrect—dacrocystitis is an acute inflammation of the lacrimal apparatus and presents as an acute abscess at the medial aspect of the eye and nasal border.
• Question 52
1 out of 1 points
Mr. Moffett is a 66-year-old male with a long history of lower extremity edema. All other causes of lower extremity edema have been ruled out and his overall symptom presentation and history are strongly supportive of chronic venous insufficiency. Today he presents with increased itching of both lower legs. Physical exam reveals 2-3+ pitting edema and trophic hyperpigmentation. The AGACNP know that treatment should include:
Response “D” is the correct answer. The only useful approach to stasis dermatitis due
Feedback to chronic venous insufficiency is to promote venous return from the lower
: extremities. “A” is not correct—there is no infection and no indication for peroxide. “B” is not correct—treatment may transiently include this measure to reduce itch but it does not treat the underlying problem. “C” likewise
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